# LMD Sentence Analysis Practise

**URL:** https://discuss.criticalfallibilism.com/t/lmd-sentence-analysis-practise/1881
**Category:** Unbounded
**Tags:** grammar, practice
**Created:** [October 18, 2023, 4:22am UTC](https://discuss.criticalfallibilism.com/t/lmd-sentence-analysis-practise/1881 "2023-10-18T04:22:34Z")
**Posts on this page:** 1
**Showing post:** 7

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### Author: ![LMD](https://discuss.criticalfallibilism.com/user_avatar/discuss.criticalfallibilism.com/lmd/32/3213_2.png) [@LMD](https://discuss.criticalfallibilism.com/u/LMD)
#### Post date: [October 18, 2023, 10:17pm UTC](https://discuss.criticalfallibilism.com/t/lmd-sentence-analysis-practise/1881/7 "2023-10-18T22:17:44Z")

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Thanks Fire. I believe you’re right.

I think the reason I made that mistake is because I thought ‘lots’ was an adverb and therefore couldn’t be the object of the action verb ‘has’. The preposition ‘of’ then was the object of ‘has’ which didn’t make sense so I thought ‘lots of’ might be an adverb similar to ‘at all’.

I can see that ‘lots’ is functioning as [an indefinite pronoun](https://langeek.co/en/grammar/course/1173/how-to-use-a-lot-in-english) (so can be the object of ‘has’). From that link:

> When ‘a lot’ is used as a pronoun, it goes under the title of ‘indefinite pronouns’. It is a quantifier because it shows the amount or quantity of something, not definite, though.

(‘lots’ being an equivalent informal version of ‘a lot’)

I did notice initally that the dictionary listed it as a pronoun but I judged wrongly that it wasn’t. This was because I couldn’t think of what it was referring to and it didn’t feel pronouny. But I see that indefinte pronouns don’t refer to anything in particular.

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