# Quantization, String Theory

**URL:** https://discuss.criticalfallibilism.com/t/quantization-string-theory/494
**Category:** Unbounded
**Created:** [January 26, 2022, 12:36am UTC](https://discuss.criticalfallibilism.com/t/quantization-string-theory/494 "2022-01-26T00:36:22Z")
**Posts on this page:** 1
**Showing post:** 6

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### Author: ![lmf](https://discuss.criticalfallibilism.com/user_avatar/discuss.criticalfallibilism.com/lmf/32/1302_2.png) [@lmf](https://discuss.criticalfallibilism.com/u/lmf)
#### Post date: [February 13, 2022, 9:41pm UTC](https://discuss.criticalfallibilism.com/t/quantization-string-theory/494/6 "2022-02-13T21:41:35Z")

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> [@alanforr](#):
>
> From DD’s point of view a partially quantum mechanical theory is one in which you start from a classical theory and then apply a procedure called quantization to get a quantum theory.

I think that’s a reasonable definition.

Then I assume that a _fully (partially) quantum mechanical entity_ is defined to be an entity that plays a significant role in a fully (partially) quantum mechanical theory?

If so, I think that definition is consistent with the implicit definition of the term I was using when I wrote this paragraph:

> I don’t know exactly what a “fully quantum mechanical” entity is, but I don’t think that the particles in QFT count (nor do I think strings or branes count, but that’s a more complicated discussion). Particles arise when you try to write your path integral as an asymptotic series in ħ, so the assumption that quantum effects are small is _built into the whole formalism_ of perturbative QFT.

Spelling it out explicitly:

1. Perturbative QFT (=summing over Feynman diagrams) is not a fully quantum mechanical theory, because it is obtained by applying a procedure called quantization to a classical theory
2. Particles in QFT are edges in Feynman diagrams
3. Therefore, particles in QFT are not fully quantum mechanical entities

Do you agree with 3. now?

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